William shakespeare was not Philip Marlowe. He died (and was born) the same date Miguel de Cervantes died. There is no coincidence, it is obvious:

There are two verbs in Castillian that translate 'to be': ser and estar. Neither their meaning, nor their usage, overlap. Both are distinctly different words. When Hamlet says his first 'to be' he means an essentially different action than he means when he says 'to be' in the second half of the dilemma.

Hamlet says: 'To ser, or to estar? that is the question: / Wether 'tis Nobler in the mind to suffer [...]' 

And then, clear, you hear Cervantes' voice...